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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM LATEST STUDY

Business Nov 4, 2025
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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM LATEST 2025/2026 STUDY

QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+

A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?

  • Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
  • Refrain for eating foods high in potassium.
  • Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
  • Increase intake of milk and milk products. - Answer>>> B.
  • Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to

  • decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
  • increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood
  • increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid
  • inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland - Answer>>> D. PTU is an adjunct
  • therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect?

  • Change the time of the dose.
  • Hold the 9 p.m. dose.
  • Administer the dose with a snack.
  • Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - Answer>>> C.
  • Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B) would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions, such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist has been achieved

  • Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1
  • Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl
  • PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min
  • Blood pressure reducedf rom 160/90 to 130.80 - Answer>>> D. angiotensin II receptor
  • antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure.Which instructions should the nurse give to a female client who just recieved a prescription for oral metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply)

  • increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice
  • Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use
  • Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension
  • Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication
  • Use condoms until treatment is completed
  • Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time - Answer>>> ADEF
  • The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement

  • verify both prescriptions with the HCP
  • report the med interactions to the nurse manager
  • hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription
  • Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy - Answer>>> A. the concomitant use of
  • an ACE inhibitor and a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels.A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults.The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?

  • liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine
  • Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention
  • Pentobarbital sodium for sleep
  • nitroglycerin for angina pain - Answer>>> C. persons with myxedema are dangerously
  • hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?

  • stop the infusion of dopamine
  • change the normal saline to a keep open rate
  • replace the urinary catheter
  • notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. - Answer>>> D.
  • A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?

  • Penicillins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Erythromycins
  • D.Sulfonamides - Answer>>> A. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic?

  • Antacids.
  • Benzodiasepines
  • Antihypertensives
  • Oral antidiabetics - Answer>>> B. respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of
  • opioid analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepines Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)?

  • Fluid volume deficit
  • B.Risk for infection

  • Risk for injury
  • Impaired sleep patterns - Answer>>> C. Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by
  • blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take FIRST?

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HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM LATEST STUDY QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS RATED A+ A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for th...