NCC NP-BC Women’s Health Care – Gynecologic & Reproductive Health Comprehensive Exam Guide Q & A 2024

• A 32-year-old patient presents with irregular menstrual cycles and

hirsutism. Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of androgens. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)
• Endometriosis
• Premature Ovarian Failure
• Cushing's Syndrome

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms and lab findings are indicative of PCOS, a

common endocrine disorder in women of reproductive age characterized by hyperandrogenism and ovulatory dysfunction.

• Which HPV strains are most commonly associated with cervical

cancer?

• HPV 6 and 11
• HPV 16 and 18
• HPV 31 and 33
• HPV 45 and 58

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for approximately 70% of

cervical cancer cases worldwide.

• A 28-year-old presents with pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and

dyspareunia. Laparoscopy reveals multiple adhesions and endometrial tissue implants outside the uterus. What is the most appropriate management?

• Hysterectomy
• NSAIDs and hormonal therapy
• Antibiotic therapy
• Immediate induction of menopause

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: This is a classic presentation of endometriosis, which is often

managed conservatively with NSAIDs for pain and hormonal therapy to suppress the ectopic endometrial tissue.

• During a routine prenatal visit, a 24-year-old woman at 28 weeks'

gestation has a blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg. What is the next best step in management?

• Immediate delivery
• Start antihypertensive medication
• Perform a 24-hour urine protein
• Bed rest

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The patient's high blood pressure warrants further

investigation for preeclampsia, which includes assessing proteinuria through a 24-hour urine protein test.

• A patient undergoing IVF treatment asks about the risk factors for

ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). Which of the following is NOT a risk factor?

• High doses of gonadotropins
• Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
• Previous OHSS
• Advanced maternal age

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: While PCOS, previous OHSS, and high doses of

gonadotropins are risk factors for OHSS, advanced maternal age is not typically associated with an increased risk of this condition.

• A 50-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Which

diagnostic procedure is most appropriate to evaluate the endometrial lining?

• Transvaginal ultrasound
• Endometrial biopsy
• Hysteroscopy
• Pap smear

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An endometrial biopsy is the most appropriate initial

diagnostic procedure to evaluate postmenopausal bleeding and assess for endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.