NR 602 WEEK 8 LATEST FINAL EXAMS ACOG GUIDELINES

NR 602 WEEK 8

NR 602 WEEK 8 LATEST FINAL EXAMS 2022/2023 ACOG GUIDELINES

PRIORITY PASS GRADED A+

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1.What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal pap smears?• Colposcopy 2.A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following?• A general health history focusing on reproductive and sexual health concerns (menses, gynecologic, and pregnancy related) and psychosocial (family related, peer related, emotional, and physical as well as related to abuse, drug use, and alcohol use) concerns Physical exam, screening tests, and immunizations as indicated by the health history and gynecologic considerations for an external-only inspection of the genitalia

ACOG Pap smear guidelines 3.A Bethesda system Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which classification?

• CIN 1

4.A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what as follow-up?• Routine screening 5.A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal PAP smear and has had regular screening since age

• If she has a normal PAP smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the

next cervical cancer screening?• 5 years 6.A young sexually active client at the family planning clinic is advised to have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What should the nurse include in the explanation of this procedure?• The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix 7.Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with a positive human papillomavirus (HPV) screen. Which procedure will be required next?• Repeat Pap and HPV screen 8.Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to cease having any future Pap tests performed?• Over 55 years of age

Amenorrhea (Primary and Secondary) 9.You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea and normal secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of the progesterone challenge is to ascertain the presence of?• Endogenous estrogen 10A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for 4 months she did experience

NR 602 WEEK 8

menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On physical examination, it is noticed that she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider a progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate • Endogenous estrogen 11.A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex characteristics. A progesterone challenge is ordered. The purpose is to determine the presence of ?• Endogenous estrogen 12.A 16year old girl who comes to your office with a history of secondary amenorrhea. She experienced menarche at age 10, regular cycles for 2 years. She has not menstruated now for 4 years. In your initial consideration of differential diagnoses, what is the most frequent etiology of

this problem:

• Eating disorder 18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate further eval?• Galactorrhea

Primary amenorrhea is best described as:

• Failure to menstruation to occur by 13 yr A nurse practitioner is caring for a woman with primary and secondary amenorrhea. The pelvic exam was normal. Which of the following may be the cause if etiology originates in the hypothalamus?• Sheehan’s syndrome

American Cancer Society recommendations A nurse practitioner is participating in a women’s health fair. When educating the women about risk factors for breast cancer, which of the following statements is incorrect?

NR 602 WEEK 8

• Fibrocystic breast disease When educating women about breast cancer risk factors, which statement is incorrect?• Fibrocystic breast disease A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing invasive breast cancer of

• 8.0

Androgen insensitivity/resistance syndrome Changes in hormonal regulation during menopause result in the gradual cessation of menstruation. From which gland is Androstenedione seceted?• Adrenals

ASCUS/HSIL results from Paper Test Report A Pap smear result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance—rule out high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (ASCUS r/o HGSIL) will require which procedure next?• Colposcopy A Pap smear result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) will require which procedure next?• Follow up pap smear

Bartholin glands and cysts A 25-year-old presents with a report of a very tender area just near her introitus and to the left of her perineum. Very painful sex is how she knew "something wasn't right." She showered and when washing, she felt a "pea-sized" painful lump on the left side of her "bottom." She tells you she looked at it with a mirror and it was very small, but now it is the size of a ping- pong ball and getting worse.When you inspect her external genitalia, you are amazed at the size and appearance of the "lump." You note what appears to be an abscess on the left medial side of the labia minora, and there is some edema extending into the perineum. Your diagnosis for this presentation is: • Bartholin’s cyst You explain to this young woman what this "lump" is and let her know you will be referring her to a gynecologist you consult with regularly. You explain to her the likely treatment as follows: • A possible incision might be necessary and a catheter placed for two to four weeks to allow for drainage and appropriate healing.A client at the women's health clinic complains of swelling of the labia and throbbing pain in the labial area after sexual intercourse. For what condition does the nurse anticipate the client will be treated?• Bartholinitis 25yo female c/o tender area near her introitus and to the L of her perineum. Very painful sex was first sign. Initially bump was very small, but now is ping-pong ball size. On exam, abscess is present on L medial side of labia minora and there's edema extending into perineum. What is dx?• Bartholin’s cyst Which of the following choices represents a disorder of the reproductive tract that causes pain, erythema, dyspareunia, and a perineal mass?• Bartholin’s cyst A nurse practitioner instructor is reviewing the anatomy of the external genitalia. At the opening of the vagina are the Bartholin's glands. Which of the following describes the function of these glands?• Production of alkaline secretions for sperm viability BMI

CDC recommendations regarding STDs and PID

NR 602 WEEK 8

Cervical cancer screening A 23-year-old women presents to your practice with a chief complaint of postcoital bleeding.Which of the following would NOT be included in the initial assessment of this patient?• Uterine biopsy a nurse practitioner is educating a woman who has a colposcopy ordered. Which of the following most accurately describes a colposcopy?• A procedure that visualizes the vaginal, vulvar or cervical epithelium with magnification to identify abnormal areas that may need to be biopsied